Xu Hướng 2/2024 # Đề Thi Giữa Học Kì 1 Môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 4 Năm 2024 # Top 6 Xem Nhiều

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Đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 môn tiếng Anh lớp 4

End of first test

Grade: 4

Time: 40’

Date: …/…/…

Subject: English

Name:

Class:

Mark:

A/ PART 1: Lisening (4 pts)

I. Listen and match (1pt). There is an example.

II. Listen and circle: (1pt). There is an example.

1. A. Good morning B. Good afternoon C. Good evening

2. A. play table tennis B. play volleyball C. play piano

3. A. Bat Trang Village B. Van Phu Village C. Van Noi Village

4. A. reading a text B. listening to music C. writing a dictation

5. A. at home B. on the beach C. at the zoo

III. Listen and number: (1pt). There is an example.

IV. Listen and tick: (1pt). There is an example.

B/ PART II: Reading (3.5 pts)

I, Choose the word or phrase that best completes the sentence. There is an example. (2 pts)

1, What day is it today? It’s………

a. Monday b. the first of October c. June

2, What can you do? I can ­…………..

a. skip b. swimming c. played badminton

3, What are they doing? They………

a. are writing a dictation b. is writing a dictation c. write a dictation

4, What did you do yesterday? I………..

a.painted a picture b. am painting a picture c. paint a picture

5, What’s his hobby? He likes……

a.flies a kite b. flying a kite c. watered the flowers

II, Read and do the task:(1.5 pts)

My name is Nam. I am Vietnamese. My birthday is the thirty of October. I am in grade 4 in class 4A at Le Loi Primary School. I go to school from Monday to Friday. At school, I love English best. I can sing many English songs . My favorite sport is football. On the weekend, my friends and I usually play football on the field. We have a lot of fun together.

2, Read the passage again and anwer the question:

A, What’s his name?

His name is Nam.

B, What nationality is he?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

C, When’s his birthday?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

D, What class is he in?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

C/ PART III: Writing (2.5 pts)

I, Fill in each gap the most suitable word from the table. There are two extra words and an example.(1.25 pts)

Japanese is listening was listens play from friend

nnnnnnnnn

II, Look at the pictures and complete sentences. There is an example. (1.25 pts)

Bộ Đề Thi Giữa Học Kì 1 Môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 6

Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 Phòng GD&ĐT Bình Giang (Thí điểm) có đáp án

A. Tania B. Tai C. Anna

A. 1D B. 1C C. 1B

A. Mr Kate B. Mrs Tin C. Mr Smith

A. desks B. classroom C. school

A. in the same class B. in different classes C. in a high school

A. is skipping B. skipping C. skips D. is skipping

A. am older B. more older C. older D. am more older

A. more expensive than B. expensiver than

C. are expensiver than D. are more expensive than

III. Match a question in column A to a suitable response in column B. (1.0 pt) C. READING (Tỉ lệ 25%) I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer marked A, B, C or D for each sentence. (1.0 pt)

The ancient town of Hoi An lies on the Thu Bon River, more than 30 kilometers to the south of Da Nang. Hoi An is famous for old temples, pagodas, tiled-roof houses and narrow streets. Tourists can visit the relics of Sa Huynh and Cham Civilization. They can also enjoy the beautiful scenery of the Thu Bon River, Cua Dai Beach, etc.

In recent years, Hoi An has become a very popular tourist destination in Viet Nam. Importantly, the committee of the World Heritages of UNESCO officially certified Hoi An as a World Heritage Site in 1999.

A. Da Nang B. Sa Huynh C. Thu Bon

A. big B. famous C. narrow

A. beautiful B. popular C. liked

A. became B. becomes C. becoming

II. Read the letter carefully then answer the questions below. (1.5 pts)

Dear Thanh,

How are you getting on? We are going to move to the new house next weekend. My uncle and my aunt live near there so I can play with my cousins. There are eight rooms in my new house. The living room is the biggest in my house. I like my bedroom very much because it looks to a lake, it is light and cool. There is a small bed and a big bookshelf in my room. I will put all my books on the shelf. I will keep my room clean and tidy.

What about you? Tell me about your house in your next e-mail.

Love,

Van

D. WRITING I. Write the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. (1.5 pts)

1. My class has 35 students.

2. My school is bigger than her school.

3. The lamp is behind the computer.

– The computer …………………………………………………………………

II. Rearrange the jumbled words to make meaningful sentences.(1.0 pt)

1. now/ Ha Noi/ the/ largest/ city/ is/ in/ Viet Nam/.

2. people/ break/ things/ at/ Tet/ shouldn’t/ in/ my/ country.

===========The end ============ Good luck!

Đáp án đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6

A. LISTENING (Tỉ lệ 25%) I. Listen and circle the best answer A, B, C to complete the sentences (5 items x 0,25 = 1.25 pts)

1. A

2. C

3. C

4. B

5. A

II. Listen to the dialogue and decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F). (5 items x 0,25 = 1.25 pts)

1. F

2. T

3. F

4. T

5. F

B. VOCABULARY + GRAMMAR + LANGUAGE FUNCTION (Tỉ lệ 25%) I. Odd one out. (5 items x 0.1 = 0.5 pt)

1. D

2. C

3. B

4. A

5. D

II. Choose the best option marked A, B, C or D to complete each sentence. (4 items x 0.25 = 1.0 pt)

1. C

2. B

3. A

4. D

III. Match a question in column A to a suitable response in column B. (4 items x 0.25 = 1.0 pt)

1. B

2. A

3. D

4. C

C. READING (Tỉ lệ 25%) I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer marked A, B, C or D for each sentence. (4 items x 0.25 = 1.0 pt)

1. A

2. C

3. B

4. A

II. Read the letter carefully then answer the questions below. (3 items x 0. 5 = 1.5 pts)

1. There are eight rooms in her new house/ eight

2. Her favorite room is her bedroom.

3. There is a small bed and a big bookshelf in her room.

D. WRITING (Tỉ lệ 25%) I. Write the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one.

(3 items x 0. 5 = 1.5 pts)

1. There are 35 students in my class.

2. Her school is smaller than my school.

3. The computer is in front of the lamp.

II. Rearrange the jumbled words to make meaningful sentences.

(2 items x 0. 5 = 1.0 pt)

1. Ha Noi is the largest city in Viet Nam now.

2. In my country, people shouldn’t break things at Tet.

===========The end ============

Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 Phòng GD&ĐT Bình Giang có đáp án

A. LISTENING I. Listen and choose the best answer marked A, B, C or D for each question. (1.25 pts)

1. What time is it?

A. 5.30 B. 6.00 C. 7.00

2. What is the time?

A. 10.00 B. 10.10 C. 12.00

3. What time does she go to school?

A. 11.30 B. 12.00 C. 12.15

4. What time does she have breakfast?

A. 7.15 B. 7.00 C. 6.30

5. What time does she get up?

A. 5.00 B. 5.30 C. 6.00

II. Listen to a small talk and decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F).

(1.25 pts)

A. plays B. to play C. play D. is play

A. does B. is C. are D. am

A. I’m five years old? B. I am five, thank you.

C. Fine, thanks. D. B and C

A. They B. It C. This D. That.

III. Match a sentence in column A to a suitable response in column B. (1,0 pt) C. READING I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer marked A, B, C or D for each question. (1,0 pt)

Lien is a student. She is in grade 6. Every morning she gets up at half past five. Then she gets dressed, brushes her teeth and washes her face. She has breakfast at six fifteen. She goes to school at six thirty five. Her school has ten classes. Her class has thirty five students. Her classroom is on the second floor.

1. Which grade is Lien in?

A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8

2. What time does she get up?

A. 5.30 B. 3.50 C. 6.15 D. 6.35

3. How many students are there in her class?

A. 10 B. 30 C. 35 D. 45

4. Where is her classroom?

A. in the city B. on the 1st floor

C. in the country D. on the 2nd floor

II. Read the passage carefully then answer the questions below. (1.5 pts)

Hoa usually gets up at six o’ clock. Then she takes a shower. After taking a shower she has breakfast. She goes to school at about a quarter to seven. Her class starts at seven and ends at half past eleven. She comes back home at eleven forty five.

D. WRITING I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. (1.5 pts)

1. This school is small.

2. How many students are there in your school?

3. Nam is Hoa’s brother.

II. Rearrange the jumbled words to make meaningful sentences. (1.0 pt)

1. Thu/ music/ listens to/ every morning.

2. He/ play soccer/ doesn’t/ on/ Monday.

===========The end ============ Good luck!

Đáp án đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6

A. LISTENING: (Tỉ lệ 25%) I. Listen and choose the best answer marked A, B, C or D for each question. (5 items x 0,25 = 1.25 pts)

1. A

2. B

3. C

4. B

5. C

II. Listen to the talk and decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F). (5 items x 0,25 = 1.25 pts)

1. T

2. F

3. T

4. T

5. F

B. VOCABULARY + GRAMMAR + LANGUAGE FUNCTION (Tỉ lệ 25%) I. Odd one out. (5 items x 0,1 = 0,5 pt)

1. D

2. C

3. D

4. A

5. B

II. Choose the best option marked A, B, C or D to complete each sentence. (4 items x 0,25 = 1,0 pt)

1. A

2. B

3. C

4. A

III. Match a sentence in column A to a suitable response in column B. (4 items x 0,25 = 1,0 pt)

1. C

2. E

3. D

4. B

C. READING (Tỉ lệ 25%) I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer marked A, B, C or D for each question. (4 items x 0,25 = 1,0 pt)

1. B

2. A

3. C

4. D

II. Read the passage carefully then answer the questions below. (3 items x 0,5 = 1,5 pts)

1/ She/ Hoa (usually) gets up at six (o’clock).

2/ After taking a shower she has breakfast.

3/ No, she doesn’t. (No. She comes back home at eleven forty five.)

D. WRITING (Tỉ lệ 25%) I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. (3 items x 0,5 = 1,5 pts)

1/ This school isn’t big.

2/ How many students does your school have?

3/ Hoa is Nam’s sister.

II. Rearrange the jumbled words to make meaningful sentences.

(2 items x 0,5 = 1,0 pt)

1/ Thu listens to music every morning.

2/ He doesn’t play soccer on Monday.

===========The end ============

Đề Thi Tiếng Anh Lớp 4 Giữa Học Kì 2 2024

1. Đề thi giữa học kì 2 lớp 4 môn Tiếng Anh - Đề số 1

Task 1. Chọn đáp án đúng.

1 . Do you like Maths? Yes, I…

A. like.

B. am.

C . do

D . is

2. I get ……. at 6.30

A. go

B. up

C. on

D. to

3. What do you do ………… English lessons?

A. in

B. on

C. at

D. during

4 . I like meat. It’s my favourite …………

A. drink

B. milk

C. food

D. juice

5. I’m ……….. I’d like some rice.

A. hungry

B. thirsty

C. angry

D. hurry

6 . What do you do …………… Maths lessons?

A. in.

B. on.

C. during

D. at

7. I like bread. It’s my favourite …………..

A. drink

B. food

C . milk

D . juice

8. Do you like English? Yes, I ………..

A. am

B. do

C. does

D. is

9. I’m ……….. I’d like some water.

A. hungry

B. angry

C . hungry

D . thirsty

10. . ………… much is it? It’s 20,000 dong.

A. who

B. what

C. how

D. when

Task 2. Complete the blanks.

1. I like meat. It’s _ _ favourite food.

2. I wants some books. _ _ _’s go to the bookshop.

3. What’s his _ _ _? He’s a worker.

4. Orange juice is _ _ favourite drink.

5. What _ _ _ _ is it? It’s 8.00 o’clock.

6. These _ _ _ maps.

7. Where _ _ _ you from?

8. What’s your _ _ _? I’m an engineer.

9. I want some food. _ _ _’s go to the food stall.

10. I _ _ _ _ elephants.

Task 3. Write the questions for these answers.

B: Because elephants can dance.

B: They’re brown.

B: They’re fifty thousand dong.

B: It’s seven o’clock.

B: I want to go to the supermarket.

2. Đáp án đề kiểm tra giữa kì 2 Tiếng Anh lớp 4 – Đề số 1

Task 1. Chọn đáp án đúng.

1 – C;

2 – B;

3 – D;

4 – C;

5 – A;

6 – C;

7 – B;

8 – B;

9 – D;

10 – C;

Task 2. Complete the blanks.

1 – my; 2 – let; 3 – job;

4 – my; 5 – time;6 – are;

7 – are; 8 – job; 9 – Let; 10 – like;

Task 3. Write the questions for these answers.

1 – Why do you like elephants?

2 – What colour are they?

3 – How much are they?

4 – What time is it?

5 – Where do you want to go?

3. Link tải Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 4 giữa kì 2 – Đề số 1

Đề thi giữa HK 2 lớp 4 Tiếng Anh 2024-2024 [Đề số 1].Doc

Đề thi giữa HK 2 lớp 4 Tiếng Anh 2024-2024 [Đề số 1].PDF

Tham khảo các đề thi giữa kì 2 lớp 4 trước đó:

Bộ Đề Thi Giữa Học Kì 1 Môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 7 Có Đáp Án

I. Choose the word in each group that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest. (1 mark): II. Choose the best words by circling the letter A,B,C or D. (2 marks)

1. How …….. is it from your house to school?

A. far B. long C. old D. tall

2. What ……… intelligent boy!

A. the B. a chúng tôi D. is

A. Yes, please B. Of course C. No, thanks D. Both A and C are correct.

4. This car is the ……. expensive of the four car.

A. Best B. more C. good D. most

5. They enjoy ……..TV.

A. to watch B. watching C. to watching D. watched

6. A chúng tôi on a farm.

A. doctor B. farmer C. teacher D. journalist

7. She is very happy …….. you again.

A. meet B. meets C. to meet D. meeting

8. He is in class 7A and …………………………. am I.

A. too B. so C. but D. by

III. Give the correct form of the verbs in the bracket. (2 marks)

1. Trang (not have) any friends in Ha noi. 1……………………

2. Some boys and girls (play) marbles at the moment. 2……………………

3. The students (visit) their old teacher next week? 3……………………

4. Mr Nam usually (watch) TV in his free time? 4…………………..

IV. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the words in the capital letters (1 mark):

1. Today Lien is not………………..because she misses her parents HAPPINESS

2. Living in the city chúng tôi living in the countryside NOISY

3. In electronics, we learn to repair. …………………….appliances. HOUSE

4. My. chúng tôi tall and beautiful. TEACH

V. Read the passage carefully then answer the questions: (2 marks)

Linda lives with her parents in a big house in HCM City. She is from England. She is thirteen. She has blue eyes and black hair. She is studying at International Language School. She can speak French, English and Vietnamese. But she doesn’t speak Vietnamese fluently. She often goes to French speaking club on Sunday mornings. She likes Vietnamese people very much because they are friendly.

1. Where is Linda from?……………………………………………………………………………..

2. How many languages can she speak?………………………………………………………………

3. Does she speak Vietnamese fluently?……………………………………………………………..

4. Why does she like Vietnamese people?…………………………………………………………

VI. Arrange the following words to make correct sentences. (1 mark).

1. play/ will/ soccer/ this/ afternoon/ they.

…………………………………………………………………………………

2. my/ is/ favorite/ English/ subject.

…………………………………………………………………………………

VII. Complete the following sentences with the suggested words. (1 mark).

1. It / difficult/ find/ apartment / Ho Chi Mih City?

……………………………………………………………………………………..

2. They/ listen/ music/ now.

……………………………………………………………………………………..

A. Hướng dẫn chung:

1. Giám khảo cần nắm vững yêu cầu chấm để đánh giá tổng quát bài làm của thí sinh. Linh hoạt trong việc vận dụng đáp án và thang điểm. Tùy theo mức độ sai phạm mà trừ điểm từng phần cho hợp lí, tuyệt đối tránh cách chấm đếm ý cho điểm một cách máy móc, khuyến khích những bài viết có tính sáng tạo.

2. Việc chi tiết hóa điểm số của các ý (nếu có) phải đảm bảo không sai lệch với tổng điểm của mỗi phần và được thống nhất trong Hội đồng chấm thi. Làm tròn điểm số sau khi cộng điểm toàn bài (lẻ 0.25 làm tròn thành 0.5; lẻ 0.75 làm tròn thành 1.0).

B. Đáp án và thang điểm: I. Choose the word in each group that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest. (1 mark): Mỗi câu chọn đúng cho 0,25 điểm

1. B 2.A 3.D 4.C

II. Choose the best words by circling the letter A,B,C or D. (2 marks) Mỗi câu chọn đúng cho 0,25 điểm

1. A 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. B

III. Give the correct form of the verbs in the bracket. (2 marks) Mỗi động từ chia đúng cho 0,5 điểm

1. doesn’t have 2. are playing 3. will visit 4. watches

IV. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the words in the capital letters: (1 mark): Mỗi từ biến đổi đúng cho 0,25 điểm

1. happy

2. noisier

3. household

4. teacher

V. Read the passage carefully then answer the questions: (2 marks) Mỗi câu trả lời đúng cho 0,5 điểm

1. She is from England.

2. She can speak three languages.

3. No, she doesn’t.

4. She likes Vietnamese people very much because they are friendly.

VI. Arrange the following words to make correct sentences. (1 mark): Mỗi câu sắp xếp đúng cho 0,5 điểm

1. They will play soccer this afternoon.

2. My favorite subject is English/English is my favorite subject.

VII. Complete the following sentences with the suggested words. (1 mark): Mỗi câu hoàn thành đúng cho 0,5 điểm

1. Is it difficult to find an apartment in Ho Chi Minh City?

2. They are listening to music now.

A. LISTENING I. Listen and circle the best answer for the following questions as you hear. (1.25 pts)

1. How was Melissa’s weekend?

A. It’s terrible. B. It’s very good. C. It’s OK.

2. What did she do on Saturday night?

A. She went out. B. She stayed at home. C. She visited her friend.

3. Who did she go to the cinema with?

A. With her sisters. B. With her boyfriend. C. With some friends.

4. What was the film like?

A. It was so boring B. It was really good. C. It was not very good.

5. What did she do on Sunday?

A. Stayed at home and watched TV

B. Slept in until 10 a.m.

C. Did gardening with her mom.

II. Listen to Jack and Naomi. Are the statements below true (T) or false (F)? Check (T or F) in the boxes. (1.25 pts)

1. Jack’s weekend was very bad.

2. Jack bought a CD as a present for his dad and he took it home.

3. He met some friends in town and they had dinner at a café on Saturday night.

4. On Sunday, he wrote a short e-mail and sent it successfully to his friend in Canada.

5. He rented a DVD-Troy, but there was a different film in.

B. PHONETICS + LANGUAGE FOCUS + LANGUAGE FUNCTION I. Circle the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. (0.5 pt)

2. A. surprise B. alone C. neighbour D. burn

A. No, thanks B. Yes, please C. I like to do nothing D. Orange juice, please

A. listen B. listens C. listening D. listened

A. because B. and C. so D. but

A. flu B. sunburn C. spots D. stomachache

A. more B. less C. much D. fewer

6. I …………… playing board games interesting because I can play them with my friends.

A. find B. think C. say D. tell

7. -” Would you like me to turn off your computer?

A. No, thanks B. Yes, please C. Don’t do it D. Of course

A. collecting things B. playing sports C. dancing D. board games

C. READING I. Read and fill in the blanks with ONE word given in the box. There is one Extra word you don’t need to use. (1.0 pt)

hobby improve when writes because difficult

I read at least one hour every day. I read books by myself. I usually read it at home. I wish I could read different kinds of books because it might be very challenging.

II. Read the following passages and answer the questions below. (1.5 pts) Oil painting:

Since the 18th century, under the impact of society, culture, and technology, oil painting has undergone dramatic changes. They are rebellious but passionate, and prosperous.

Watercolor paintings

Watercolor paintings are considered a unique way to creatively represent dreams, illusions, emotions, and bright feelings using water-soluble pigments.

Sketch: (Tranh phác họa)

Van Gogh did not begin painting until his late twenties. He produced more than 2,000 artworks, consisting of around 900 paintings and 1,100 sketches.

Portrait: (Tranh chân dung)

The Mona Lisa is a famous 16th-century portrait by Leonardo da Vinci. The true identity of the woman pictured in the portrait remains unknown, despite intensive researches by art historians.

1. What kind of painting is rebellious?

2. Who was famous for Sketch?

3. When did Leonardo da Vinci draw the portrait ‘ The Mona Lisa”?

D. WRITING I. Combine each pair of the following sentences into one, using the suggested conjunctions in the brackets. (1.5 pts)

1. Mr. Hai usually has stomach problems. He eats dinner very close to the bedtime. (so)

2. My dad has a lot of carved eggs. He has never sold any of them. (but)

3. You will get a breathing problem. Clean your bed room more regularly. (or)

II. Rearrange the jumbled words to make meaningful sentences. (1.0 pt)

1. It/ be/ good idea/ eat/ different/ kind/ fruit/ vegetable/ every day.

2. My brother/ not like/ ice-skating/ because/ think/ it/ dangerous.

Đáp án đề thi giữa học kỳ 1 môn tiếng Anh lớp 7

A. LISTENING (Tỉ lệ 25%) I. Listen and circle the best answer for the following questions as you hear. (5 items x 0,25 = 1.25 pts)

1.C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. A

II. Listen to Jack and Naomi. Are the statements below true (T) or false (F)? Check (T or F) in the boxes. (5 items x 0,25 = 1.25 pts)

1. T 2. F 3. T 4. F 5. T

B. PHONETICS + LANGUAGE FOCUS + LANGUAGE FUNCTION (Tỉ lệ 25%) I. Circle the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others.) (5 items x 0,1 = 0,5 pt)

1.D 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. C

II. Choose the best answer to complete the sentences. (8 items x 0,25 =2,0 pts)

1. D 2. C 3. C 4. B

5. B 6. A 7. A 8. D

C. READING I. Read and fill in the blanks with ONE word given in the box. There is one Extra word you don’t need to use. (5 items x 0,2 = 1,0 pt)

1. hobby 2. when 3. because 4. writes 5. improve

II. Read the following passages and answer the questions below. (1.5 pts)

1. It is Oil painting.

2. Van Gogh was famous for it.

3. He painted it in the sixteenth century.

D. WRITING I. Combine each pair of the following sentences into one, using the conjunctions in brackets. (3 items x 0,5 =1.5 pts)

1. Mr. Hai eats dinner very close to the bedtime, so he usually has stomach problems.

2. My dad has a lot of carved eggs, but he has never sold any of them.

3. Clean your bed room more regularly or you will get a breathing problem.

II. Rearrange the jumbled words to make meaningful sentences. (2 items x 0,5 =1.0 pt)

1. It’s a good idea to eat different kinds of fruit and vegetables every day.

2. My brother doesn’t like ice-skating because he thinks it is dangerous.

===========The end ===========

Bản Mềm: Bộ Đề Thi Giữa Kì 2 Môn Tiếng Việt Lớp 4

Bản mềm: Bộ đề thi giữa kì 2 môn Tiếng Việt lớp 4 được biên soạn có hệ thống. Phân loại khoa học theo từng dạng bài cụ thể. Quá trình luyện tập học sinh có thể hệ thống hóa lời giải một cách chi tiết. Quý thầy cô giáo có thể tải về dựa theo đối tượng học sinh của mình. Để sửa đổi cho phù hợp.

Ngoài ra với phương pháp dạy học tích cực. thầy cô có thể đưa những ví dụ trực quan hơn vào câu hỏi. Qua đó kích thích sự sáng tạo của học sinh Qua Bản mềm: Bộ đề thi giữa kì 2 môn Tiếng Việt lớp 4. Tải thêm tài liệu tiểu học

Chuẩn bị phần tập đọc và luyện từ và câu

Trong chương trình Tiếng Việt lớp 4 có rất nhiều kiến thức mới học sinh được học. Để chuẩn bị cho đề thi giữa kì 2 môn Tiếng Việt, học sinh cần chú ý tới ba phần: tập đọc, luyện từ và câu, chính tả, tập làm văn.

Với phần tập đọc. Đây là phần rèn kĩ năng đọc hiểu cho học sinh. Để ôn tập, học sinh hãy đọc kĩ các bài tập đọc. Đồng thời luyện tập trả lời câu hỏi cuối bài.

Cấu tạo của tiếng

Dấu hai chấm

Từ đơn, từ phức

Từ ghép, từ láy

Danh từ (Có thể tham khảo ở các bài tập về danh từ, động từ tính từ lớp 4)

Dấu câu: dấu chấm, dấu phẩy, dấu hỏi, dấu gạch ngang

Câu kể, câu cầu khiến

Vì là học cho bộ đề ôn thi giữa kì 2 môn Tiếng Việt lớp 4 nên lượng kiến thức chưa nhiều.

Hình ảnh bản mềm Chuẩn bị cho chính tả và tập làm văn cho đề thi giữa kì 2 môn Tiếng Việt

Về phần chính tả thì luyện tập là chủ yếu. Điều này thì cần nhờ vào phụ huynh, giáo viên để bé rèn thêm ở nhà trên lớp.

Vốn phần chính tả và tập làm văn phụ thuộc nhiều vào sự thực hành luyện tập của bé. Do đó vai trò của giáo viên và phụ huynh rất quan trọng. Để có phương pháp học tập tốt hơn có thể tham khảo giáo án trải nghiệm sáng tạo lớp 4 cả năm.

Tải tài liệu miễn phí ở đây

Sưu tầm: Trần Thị Nhung

Bộ Đề Thi Giữa Học Kì 1 Môn Toán Lớp 1 Năm 2024

Bộ đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Toán lớp 1 năm 2024 – 2024 sách Cánh diều, Bộ đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Toán lớp 1 năm 2024 – 2024 sách Cánh diều gồm 3 đề thi, có đáp

Bộ đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Toán lớp 1 năm 2024 – 2024 sách Cánh diều gồm 3 đề thi, có đáp án, giúp thầy cô tham khảo để ra đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 cho học sinh của mình. Đây cũng là tài liệu hữu ích cho các em luyện giải đề, để chuẩn bị thật tốt cho bài kiểm tra giữa học kì 1. 

Đề kiểm tra giữa học kì 1 môn Toán lớp 1 sách Cánh diều

Trường Tiểu học……………..

Tên học sinh:…………………

Lớp: ……………………..…..…

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ I NĂM HỌC 2024- 2024

Môn: Toán – Lớp 1 Cánh diềuThời gian: 40 phút

Bài 1. Nối ô trống với các số thích hợp:

3 … 5

2 … 2

1 + 3 … 2 + 3

4 + 0 … 2 + 2

6 … 4

7 … 9

2 + 1 … 1 + 1

1 + 4 … 2 + 3

Bài 4. Nối ghép tính với kết quả đúng:

Bài 5.Tính:

Bài 6. Viết phép tính thích hợp vào ô trống bên phải:

Đáp án đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 môn Toán 1 sách Cánh diều

Bài 1.

Bài 2.

3 < 5

2 = 2

1 + 3 < 2 + 3

4 + 0 = 2 + 2

7 < 9

1 + 4 = 2 + 3

Bài 3.

Bài 4.

Bài 5.

Bài 6.

Cập nhật thông tin chi tiết về Đề Thi Giữa Học Kì 1 Môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 4 Năm 2024 trên website Acevn.edu.vn. Hy vọng nội dung bài viết sẽ đáp ứng được nhu cầu của bạn, chúng tôi sẽ thường xuyên cập nhật mới nội dung để bạn nhận được thông tin nhanh chóng và chính xác nhất. Chúc bạn một ngày tốt lành!